Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
How soon should defibrillation be attempted in a witnessed VF arrest?
Incorrect. Early defibrillation within 30 seconds of a witnessed VF arrest increases survival rates significantly.
Correct. Early defibrillation within 30 seconds of a witnessed VF arrest increases survival rates significantly.
During advanced airway management, breaths should be delivered every 6-8 seconds.
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Defibrillation energy for adult cardiac arrest typically starts at 360 J.
Incorrect. Adult defibrillation with a biphasic defibrillator typically starts at 120-200 J, not 360 J, depending on the manufacturer's guidelines.
Correct. Adult defibrillation with a biphasic defibrillator typically starts at 120-200 J, not 360 J, depending on the manufacturer's guidelines.
The appropriate initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 150 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. The correct initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 300 mg IV/IO, followed by 150 mg for a second dose if needed.
Correct. The correct initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 300 mg IV/IO, followed by 150 mg for a second dose if needed.
What is the most common cause of PEA?
Incorrect. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is the most frequent reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered during CPR with advanced airway?
Incorrect. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
What is the appropriate action for a patient with PEA?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
The compression fraction during CPR should be >60% for effective resuscitation.
Incorrect. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
Correct. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
What is the compression rate for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR.
Correct. The same compression rate as adults ensures adequate perfusion in pediatric patients during CPR.
Which rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth atrial pattern?
Incorrect. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
Correct. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
The ideal pulse check duration during CPR is 10-15 seconds.
Incorrect. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
What is the primary goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Asystole is a shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
What is the first step in managing a patient with asystole?
Incorrect. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
Correct. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
High-quality CPR requires a compression fraction of >80%.
Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
Correct. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
What is the recommended dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
Which drug is used for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
What is the first step when you encounter an unresponsive adult?
Incorrect. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation.
Correct. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation.
ROSC is defined as the return of a detectable pulse and effective blood circulation.
Incorrect. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
Correct. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer pediatric CPR is 15:2.
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients.
What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
How often should chest compressors switch roles to avoid fatigue?
Incorrect. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained.
Correct. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained.
The recommended defibrillation dose for pediatric VF arrest is 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
How many seconds should a pulse check take during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 5-10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 5-10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
What is the initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
The proper ventilation rate during advanced airway CPR is 6-8 breaths per minute.
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Targeted temperature management (TTM) aims to reduce the risk of brain injury post-ROSC.
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation.
During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
What is the goal oxygen saturation during ACLS care?
Incorrect. Maintaining this range prevents hypoxia while minimizing the risks of hyperoxia and oxidative injury.
Correct. Maintaining this range prevents hypoxia while minimizing the risks of hyperoxia and oxidative injury.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
How long should you pause chest compressions to deliver a shock?
Incorrect. Minimizes interruptions to maintain blood flow to vital organs.
Correct. Minimizes interruptions to maintain blood flow to vital organs.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Correct. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
How many cycles of CPR are recommended before rhythm reassessment?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm.
Chest compressions should be paused to deliver ventilation during advanced airway CPR.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
Which rhythm is most commonly associated with sudden cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
Correct. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
What is the maximum time allowed for interruption of chest compressions?
Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should not exceed 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs.
Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should not exceed 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs.
Adenosine is the drug of choice for pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes.
How should breaths be delivered with a bag-mask device?
Incorrect. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
What is the initial step in the BLS survey?
Incorrect. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Correct. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
What is the primary focus during the first 10 minutes of post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
Correct. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
How many rescuers are required for high-quality CPR with advanced airway management?
Incorrect. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
Correct. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine in ACLS?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
What is the recommended treatment for tension pneumothorax?
Incorrect. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
Correct. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Correct. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
How often should you switch chest compressors during CPR?
Incorrect. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
What is the appropriate energy setting for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT.
What is the appropriate treatment for VF in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 15:2.
Incorrect. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 30:2, ensuring sufficient oxygenation and circulation.
Correct. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 30:2, ensuring sufficient oxygenation and circulation.
Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Defibrillation should always be performed within 10 minutes of identifying VF.
Incorrect. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
Correct. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
What is the preferred route for drug administration during ACLS?
Incorrect. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
Correct. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
Hypovolemia is one of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
What is the preferred drug for refractory ventricular fibrillation?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory VF to stabilize the myocardium.
Correct. Amiodarone is used after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory VF to stabilize the myocardium.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Hypothermia is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures.
