Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
The recommended defibrillation dose for pediatric VF arrest is 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
What is the primary goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
What is the first drug given for stable narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate stable narrow-complex tachycardia by slowing AV node conduction.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate stable narrow-complex tachycardia by slowing AV node conduction.
What is the first-line treatment for narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
How long should a pulse check take during CPR?
Incorrect. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion.
Correct. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion.
Which condition is included in the "T's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
Correct. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
What is the proper treatment for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the correct ventilation rate for CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
What is the first-line drug for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
How should you position a patient for defibrillation?
Incorrect. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
Correct. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
How should you treat a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
What is the initial treatment for pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation.
Correct. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation.
How should breaths be delivered with a bag-mask device?
Incorrect. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
The recommended initial energy for pediatric defibrillation is 2 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg to safely deliver an effective shock without causing harm.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg to safely deliver an effective shock without causing harm.
The correct defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest starts at 2 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg and increases to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg and increases to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
What is the first intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
Hypoxia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
Correct. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless electrical activity.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR?
Incorrect. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
Correct. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
The initial dose of adenosine for narrow-complex SVT in adults is 6 mg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Correct. Atropine is given at a dose of 0.5 mg every 3-5 minutes during bradycardia, up to a maximum dose of 3 mg.
Which rhythm is most commonly associated with sudden cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
Correct. Ventricular fibrillation is the most common cause of sudden cardiac arrest and requires immediate defibrillation.
Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock.
Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
What is the recommended compression fraction for effective CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions.
Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
What is the ideal chest compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
How many cycles of CPR should be completed before reassessing the rhythm?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
The target temperature for targeted temperature management (TTM) is 32-36°C.
Incorrect. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C.
How should compressions be performed for an infant during CPR?
Incorrect. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Correct. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Which drug is used for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Magnesium sulfate is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
The initial treatment for unstable bradycardia is atropine.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block.
Correct. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block.
How many rescuers are required for high-quality CPR with advanced airway management?
Incorrect. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
Correct. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
What is the initial dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
What is the correct response if a shockable rhythm persists after the first shock?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
What is the dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush.
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine in ACLS?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
The correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of atrial fibrillation is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization.
Correct. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization.
What is the primary focus during the first 10 minutes of post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
Correct. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
ROSC stands for Return of Circulation Success.
Incorrect. ROSC stands for "Return of Spontaneous Circulation," indicating the resumption of a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. ROSC stands for "Return of Spontaneous Circulation," indicating the resumption of a perfusing rhythm.
Targeted temperature management (TTM) aims to reduce the risk of brain injury post-ROSC.
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation.
Waveform capnography is the preferred method to confirm endotracheal tube placement.
Incorrect. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Correct. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
What is the initial defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg for the first shock and increases as necessary for subsequent shocks.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg for the first shock and increases as necessary for subsequent shocks.
Hypothermia is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures.
What is the primary treatment for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
What is the recommended initial dose of amiodarone for VF?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
The recommended oxygen saturation target during post-cardiac arrest care is 92-96%.
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage.
What is the treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
What is the recommended duration of a pulse check in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
What is the proper dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with one rescuer?
Incorrect. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
Correct. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
What is the target core temperature during targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
