Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation.
What is the treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
What is the appropriate action for a patient with PEA?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
What is the recommended dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push at an initial dose of 6 mg to terminate stable SVT.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered during CPR with advanced airway?
Incorrect. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Magnesium sulfate is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Waveform capnography is the preferred method to confirm endotracheal tube placement.
Incorrect. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Correct. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
What is the proper energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
The proper ventilation rate during advanced airway CPR is 6-8 breaths per minute.
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
What is the preferred treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
The initial dose of adenosine for narrow-complex SVT in adults is 6 mg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
The correct defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest starts at 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
What is the most common reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Correct. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Asystole requires immediate defibrillation.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for pediatric patients?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
What is the best indicator of ROSC during CPR?
Incorrect. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange.
Correct. A sudden increase in PETCO2 is a reliable indicator of ROSC, reflecting improved circulation and gas exchange.
What is the primary intervention for ROSC?
Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia.
Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia.
The target PETCO2 during effective chest compressions is >10 mmHg.
Incorrect. A PETCO2 level greater than 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating adequate blood flow.
Correct. A PETCO2 level greater than 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating adequate blood flow.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg.
Correct. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg.
The recommended compression depth for child CPR is 1/3 the depth of the chest.
Incorrect. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs.
Correct. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs.
Targeted temperature management (TTM) aims to reduce the risk of brain injury post-ROSC.
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation.
What is the recommended action for a witnessed cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Hypokalemia is included in the "H's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Correct. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
What is the preferred drug for refractory ventricular fibrillation?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory VF to stabilize the myocardium.
Correct. Amiodarone is used after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory VF to stabilize the myocardium.
The recommended chest compression depth for infants is at least 2 inches.
Incorrect. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm).
Correct. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm).
How should you position a pregnant patient during resuscitation?
Incorrect. A left lateral tilt prevents aortocaval compression, improving venous return and cardiac output during resuscitation.
Correct. A left lateral tilt prevents aortocaval compression, improving venous return and cardiac output during resuscitation.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
How long should you pause chest compressions to deliver a shock?
Incorrect. Minimizes interruptions to maintain blood flow to vital organs.
Correct. Minimizes interruptions to maintain blood flow to vital organs.
Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock.
Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine in ACLS?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
Magnesium sulfate is the treatment of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine is given every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Which drug is used for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
The appropriate initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 150 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. The correct initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 300 mg IV/IO, followed by 150 mg for a second dose if needed.
Correct. The correct initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless VT is 300 mg IV/IO, followed by 150 mg for a second dose if needed.
What is the recommended initial energy for pediatric defibrillation?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts with 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts with 2 J/kg, increasing to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
What is the dose of adenosine for stable SVT?
Incorrect. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Which drug is used for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
What is the proper position for chest compressions on an adult?
Incorrect. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures.
Correct. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures.
Hypovolemia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Correct. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
What is the preferred treatment for unstable SVT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
What is the recommended initial treatment for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant circuits.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant circuits.
How should you confirm the placement of an endotracheal tube?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by continuously monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective CPR?
Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR.
Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
What is the initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the compression rate for CPR in adults?
Incorrect. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
Correct. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
What rhythm is described as a chaotic, irregular deflection with no P or QRS waves?
Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation presents as a disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation.
Correct. Ventricular fibrillation presents as a disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial flutter.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Incorrect. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
Correct. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
