Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
Hypoxia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
Correct. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
What is the appropriate treatment for VF in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
What is the first step when you encounter an unresponsive adult?
Incorrect. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation.
Correct. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation.
Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating unstable SVT.
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for stable SVT, while synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for stable SVT, while synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable SVT.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Asystole is a shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
What is the proper treatment for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the compression rate for CPR in adults?
Incorrect. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
Correct. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
How often should you switch chest compressors during CPR?
Incorrect. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Magnesium sulfate is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Adenosine is the drug of choice for pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not treated with adenosine; it is managed with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying and treating reversible causes.
What is the appropriate action for a patient with PEA?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
How often should you reassess pulse during CPR?
Incorrect. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation.
Correct. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation.
What is the first-line drug for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
The initial treatment for unstable bradycardia is atropine.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block.
Correct. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block.
What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
What is the shockable rhythm in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the initial step in the BLS survey?
Incorrect. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Correct. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
The recommended defibrillation dose for pediatric VF arrest is 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
What is the proper dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
ROSC should be followed by immediate optimization of oxygenation and ventilation.
Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on optimizing oxygenation, ventilation, and hemodynamic stability to prevent further organ damage.
Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on optimizing oxygenation, ventilation, and hemodynamic stability to prevent further organ damage.
Hypovolemia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
How should you position a pregnant patient during resuscitation?
Incorrect. A left lateral tilt prevents aortocaval compression, improving venous return and cardiac output during resuscitation.
Correct. A left lateral tilt prevents aortocaval compression, improving venous return and cardiac output during resuscitation.
Which condition is included in the "T's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
Correct. Thrombosis (pulmonary or coronary) is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed immediately.
Targeted temperature management (TTM) aims to reduce the risk of brain injury post-ROSC.
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36°C after the return of spontaneous circulation.
How should you confirm ET tube placement in a patient?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
What is the first drug given for stable narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate stable narrow-complex tachycardia by slowing AV node conduction.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate stable narrow-complex tachycardia by slowing AV node conduction.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Waveform capnography is the preferred method to confirm endotracheal tube placement.
Incorrect. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Correct. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
What is the preferred treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
What is the appropriate action for PEA?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
Correct. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
How should chest compressions be performed in pregnant patients?
Incorrect. Positioning the patient with a slight left tilt prevents aortocaval compression and improves venous return during CPR.
Correct. Positioning the patient with a slight left tilt prevents aortocaval compression and improves venous return during CPR.
The recommended compression rate for CPR is 90-100 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. The correct compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute to optimize perfusion and prevent fatigue.
Correct. The correct compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute to optimize perfusion and prevent fatigue.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
What is the drug of choice for wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic for stabilizing wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients.
Correct. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic for stabilizing wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients.
High-quality CPR requires a compression fraction of >80%.
Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
Correct. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
The maximum time for a pulse check during CPR is 10 seconds.
Incorrect. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Defibrillation should be delayed until after administering epinephrine in ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
Correct. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
Correct. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
How many chest compressions should be delivered per minute in high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute optimizes perfusion without compromising cardiac filling.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute optimizes perfusion without compromising cardiac filling.
What is the dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush.
What is the proper technique for opening the airway of a trauma patient?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without manipulating the cervical spine, protecting against spinal cord injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without manipulating the cervical spine, protecting against spinal cord injury.
Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
How should you position a patient for defibrillation?
Incorrect. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
Correct. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
A compression fraction of >60% is recommended for high-quality CPR.
Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% is required to maximize perfusion and improve survival rates during high-quality CPR.
Correct. A compression fraction >80% is required to maximize perfusion and improve survival rates during high-quality CPR.
What is the treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless electrical activity.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
How often should you deliver breaths during CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered every 6-8 seconds to provide oxygenation without interrupting chest compressions.
Correct. Ventilations are delivered every 6-8 seconds to provide oxygenation without interrupting chest compressions.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What is the primary treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for treating symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate through vagal inhibition.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for treating symptomatic bradycardia by increasing heart rate through vagal inhibition.
What is the target core temperature during targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
The ideal pulse check duration during CPR is 10-15 seconds.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
What is the recommended initial treatment for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant circuits.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant circuits.
What is the recommended compression fraction for effective CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions.
Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized rhythm.
Continuous compressions should be provided during CPR with an advanced airway in place.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway, compressions continue uninterrupted while ventilation is provided at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway, compressions continue uninterrupted while ventilation is provided at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.
