Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue.
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
What is the most common cause of PEA?
Incorrect. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
What is the proper technique for opening the airway of a trauma patient?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without manipulating the cervical spine, protecting against spinal cord injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without manipulating the cervical spine, protecting against spinal cord injury.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR suggest effective chest compressions.
Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating sufficient circulation during CPR.
Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating sufficient circulation during CPR.
What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
What is the first intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
Which of the following is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
What is the appropriate action for a patient with PEA?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
What is the recommended action for a witnessed cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.
What is the recommended compression depth for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion.
Continuous compressions should be provided during CPR with an advanced airway in place.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway, compressions continue uninterrupted while ventilation is provided at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway, compressions continue uninterrupted while ventilation is provided at a rate of 10 breaths per minute.
What is the appropriate dose of lidocaine for refractory VF?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
Correct. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
What is the recommended initial dose of amiodarone for VF?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone is administered as a 300 mg IV/IO bolus for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the first step in managing a patient with asystole?
Incorrect. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
Correct. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the ideal chest compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
The initial dose of epinephrine for cardiac arrest is 1 mg IV.
Incorrect. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Magnesium sulfate is the treatment of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
What is the compression fraction goal during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation.
Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation.
Hypoglycemia is included in the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. While hypoglycemia can cause critical symptoms, it is not included in the H's and T's of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Correct. While hypoglycemia can cause critical symptoms, it is not included in the H's and T's of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
The recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care is 92-96%.
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% prevents hypoxia and avoids complications associated with hyperoxia.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% prevents hypoxia and avoids complications associated with hyperoxia.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the correct response if a shockable rhythm persists after the first shock?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after a shock to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
Which drug is used for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
What is the initial treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
What is the correct ventilation rate for CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
How often should team roles be rotated during CPR to avoid fatigue?
Incorrect. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions.
How often should you switch chest compressors during CPR?
Incorrect. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
What is the initial defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg for the first shock and increases as necessary for subsequent shocks.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg for the first shock and increases as necessary for subsequent shocks.
What is the recommended dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation.
Which rhythm requires transcutaneous pacing if symptomatic?
Incorrect. Symptomatic second-degree AV block type II can progress to complete heart block, requiring pacing.
Correct. Symptomatic second-degree AV block type II can progress to complete heart block, requiring pacing.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm in ACLS.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate CPR and epinephrine administration.
The recommended chest compression depth for infants is at least 2 inches.
Incorrect. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm).
Correct. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm).
What is the first action when you see an unresponsive patient?
Incorrect. Shouting for help ensures additional resources and a defibrillator are quickly available.
Correct. Shouting for help ensures additional resources and a defibrillator are quickly available.
What is the initial step in the BLS survey?
Incorrect. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Correct. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse.
What is the recommended first action for an unresponsive infant?
Incorrect. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment.
Correct. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment.
What is the treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
What should be done immediately after defibrillation?
Incorrect. CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
Correct. CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 5 mg.
Incorrect. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes.
Correct. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes.
What is the first-line treatment for narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
Ventricular fibrillation is considered a shockable rhythm.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation target during ROSC?
Incorrect. Reduces the risk of oxidative stress and worsened outcomes by preventing hyperoxia.
Correct. Reduces the risk of oxidative stress and worsened outcomes by preventing hyperoxia.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
What is the primary treatment for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
How often should epinephrine be administered during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation.
Correct. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
What is the compression depth for infant CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
How often should a rhythm check occur during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches.
How should you confirm ET tube placement in a patient?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Amiodarone and lidocaine are both used for refractory VF during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial flutter.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Correct. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Which drug is used for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
What is the dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate.
Correct. First-line treatment to block vagal stimulation and increase heart rate.
