Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the appropriate rate of chest compressions for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation in pediatric patients.
Atropine is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
What is the appropriate action for PEA?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
Correct. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
What is the recommended temperature range for TTM in ROSC?
Incorrect. Targeted temperature management improves neurological outcomes by preventing further brain injury.
Correct. Targeted temperature management improves neurological outcomes by preventing further brain injury.
What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
What is the preferred route for drug administration during ACLS?
Incorrect. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
Correct. IV access is preferred for rapid administration; IO is the alternative if IV access is unavailable.
What is the best method to monitor effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring ensures effective ventilation and provides feedback on the quality of chest compressions during CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring ensures effective ventilation and provides feedback on the quality of chest compressions during CPR.
What is the most common cause of PEA?
Incorrect. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
Correct. Hypoxia is a reversible cause of PEA; it must be treated immediately with oxygenation and ventilation.
What is the first drug given for stable narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate stable narrow-complex tachycardia by slowing AV node conduction.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate stable narrow-complex tachycardia by slowing AV node conduction.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
What is the maximum interval between defibrillation attempts during CPR?
Incorrect. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
Correct. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
What is the primary focus during the first few minutes of ROSC?
Incorrect. Adequate oxygenation and ventilation are critical to preventing hypoxia or hyperoxia after ROSC.
Correct. Adequate oxygenation and ventilation are critical to preventing hypoxia or hyperoxia after ROSC.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
The recommended compression depth for child CPR is 1/3 the depth of the chest.
Incorrect. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs.
Correct. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs.
What is the treatment for severe hyperkalemia during ACLS?
Incorrect. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
Correct. Calcium gluconate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and reduces the risk of life-threatening arrhythmias caused by hyperkalemia.
What is the dose of adenosine for stable SVT?
Incorrect. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Administered via rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
During advanced airway management, breaths should be delivered every 6-8 seconds.
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute prevents hyperventilation and maintains adequate oxygenation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Amiodarone is the first-line drug for treating ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts.
Correct. Epinephrine is given first in VF during cardiac arrest, followed by amiodarone as an antiarrhythmic after defibrillation attempts.
What is the appropriate depth for chest compressions in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
Lidocaine is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases.
Correct. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases.
What is the next step if VF persists after 2 defibrillation attempts?
Incorrect. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
Correct. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
What is the primary intervention for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing the heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
What is the primary intervention for ROSC?
Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia.
Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia.
How soon should defibrillation be attempted in a witnessed VF arrest?
Incorrect. Early defibrillation within 30 seconds of a witnessed VF arrest increases survival rates significantly.
Correct. Early defibrillation within 30 seconds of a witnessed VF arrest increases survival rates significantly.
What is the appropriate interval for rhythm checks during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the need for defibrillation.
What is the ideal chest compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
What is the recommended initial treatment for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant circuits.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant circuits.
Amiodarone and lidocaine are both used for refractory VF during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone is preferred, but lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
How should breaths be delivered with a bag-mask device?
Incorrect. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
What is the preferred treatment for unstable SVT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
What is the recommended first action for an unresponsive infant?
Incorrect. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment.
Correct. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment.
What is the proper position for chest compressions on an adult?
Incorrect. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures.
Correct. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures.
What is the correct joules dose for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, regular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 50-100 J is effective for narrow, regular tachycardias that are unstable.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 50-100 J is effective for narrow, regular tachycardias that are unstable.
The ideal pulse check duration during CPR is 10-15 seconds.
Incorrect. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
What is the recommended treatment for unstable tachycardia?
Incorrect. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Correct. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
ROSC stands for Return of Circulation Success.
Incorrect. ROSC stands for "Return of Spontaneous Circulation," indicating the resumption of a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. ROSC stands for "Return of Spontaneous Circulation," indicating the resumption of a perfusing rhythm.
What is the correct ventilation rate for CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
How should you treat a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Delivering 10 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without causing hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 10 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without causing hyperventilation.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
What is the target oxygen saturation during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation within this range ensures adequate oxygenation without the risk of hyperoxia.
What is the preferred drug for refractory ventricular fibrillation?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory VF to stabilize the myocardium.
Correct. Amiodarone is used after defibrillation and epinephrine for refractory VF to stabilize the myocardium.
What is the correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in unstable VT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
Which drug is used for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
What is the appropriate dose of magnesium for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the first-line treatment for narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
How should compressions be performed for an infant during CPR?
Incorrect. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Correct. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
What is the recommended dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation.
During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial flutter.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable atrial fibrillation.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable atrial fibrillation to restore sinus rhythm and prevent hemodynamic collapse.
Defibrillation should be attempted within 30 seconds for a witnessed VF arrest.
Incorrect. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Incorrect. Naloxone blocks opioid receptors and is administered to reverse opioid overdose and restore adequate respiration.
Correct. Naloxone blocks opioid receptors and is administered to reverse opioid overdose and restore adequate respiration.
Defibrillation is contraindicated in patients with ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the primary treatment to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the primary treatment to restore an organized rhythm.
