Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the recommended treatment for tension pneumothorax?
Incorrect. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
Correct. Needle decompression relieves pressure caused by tension pneumothorax, improving ventilation and circulation.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
What is the recommended compression depth for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless electrical activity.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered to an adult during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations are delivered at a rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
What is the recommended duration of a pulse check in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
What is the proper energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion with 120-200 J is used to restore normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
What is the proper treatment for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Naloxone should be administered to all cardiac arrest patients.
Incorrect. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest.
Correct. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest.
What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
What is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute?
Incorrect. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
Correct. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
Atropine is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, not atropine. Atropine is used for symptomatic bradycardia.
What is the proper dose of naloxone for suspected opioid overdose?
Incorrect. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, restoring respiratory effort in patients with respiratory depression.
Correct. Naloxone is used to reverse opioid overdose, restoring respiratory effort in patients with respiratory depression.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for pediatric patients?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
What is the appropriate energy setting for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J to treat VF or pulseless VT.
The proper ventilation rate during advanced airway CPR is 6-8 breaths per minute.
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
What is the first drug administered during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest.
What is the primary treatment for VF during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and immediate defibrillation is the most effective treatment.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and immediate defibrillation is the most effective treatment.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
What is the first step when you encounter an unresponsive adult?
Incorrect. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation.
Correct. Activating EMS ensures help is on the way while you assess and initiate resuscitation.
During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue.
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
What is the maximum interval between defibrillation attempts during CPR?
Incorrect. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
Correct. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
Chest compressions should be performed at a rate of 80-100 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
Correct. The recommended rate for chest compressions is 100-120 compressions per minute to maximize perfusion.
What is the preferred alternative route if IV access is not available?
Incorrect. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Correct. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
What is the ideal chest compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction greater than 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
What is the maximum pause allowed for chest compressions during CPR?
Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion.
Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should be minimized to less than 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio during CPR?
Incorrect. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
Correct. For adult CPR, the ratio ensures adequate perfusion and oxygenation when no advanced airway is in place.
What is the target core temperature during targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36°C.
Asystole requires immediate defibrillation.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
What is the primary treatment for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Defibrillation is contraindicated in patients with ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the primary treatment to restore an organized rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the primary treatment to restore an organized rhythm.
What is the most common reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
Epinephrine is administered every 5-10 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What is the initial dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 0.1 mg/kg rapid IV push for pediatric SVT, followed by a saline flush.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective chest compressions?
Incorrect. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 values greater than 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and blood circulation.
What is the appropriate treatment for VF in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
The recommended defibrillation dose for pediatric VF arrest is 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer pediatric CPR is 15:2.
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures optimal oxygenation and circulation during two-rescuer CPR in pediatric patients.
What rhythm is described as a chaotic, irregular deflection with no P or QRS waves?
Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation presents as a disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation.
Correct. Ventricular fibrillation presents as a disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation.
What is the recommended compression fraction for effective CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions.
Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions.
How long should a pulse check take during CPR?
Incorrect. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion.
Correct. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion.
The correct defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest starts at 2 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg and increases to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg and increases to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
How often should you reassess pulse during CPR?
Incorrect. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation.
Correct. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Correct. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
What is the preferred method for confirming endotracheal tube placement?
Incorrect. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
Correct. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
The initial dose of adenosine for treating stable SVT in adults is 12 mg IV.
Incorrect. The initial dose of adenosine for stable SVT in adults is 6 mg IV, followed by 12 mg if needed for subsequent doses.
Correct. The initial dose of adenosine for stable SVT in adults is 6 mg IV, followed by 12 mg if needed for subsequent doses.
What is the primary goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
How often should you deliver breaths during CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Ventilations are delivered every 6-8 seconds to provide oxygenation without interrupting chest compressions.
Correct. Ventilations are delivered every 6-8 seconds to provide oxygenation without interrupting chest compressions.
How many breaths per minute should be delivered during CPR with advanced airway?
Incorrect. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
Correct. Ventilations should be provided at a controlled rate of 6-8 breaths per minute to prevent hyperventilation.
What is the primary focus during the first 10 minutes of post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
Correct. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
What is the appropriate action if PEA is identified?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
What is the recommended treatment for unstable tachycardia?
Incorrect. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Correct. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
How should breaths be delivered with a bag-mask device?
Incorrect. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 1 breath every 5-6 seconds prevents hypoventilation or hyperventilation.
Waveform capnography is the preferred method to confirm endotracheal tube placement.
Incorrect. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Correct. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Hypothermia is one of the "H's" in the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and is treated by warming the patient to improve outcomes.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and is treated by warming the patient to improve outcomes.
What is the proper technique for opening the airway of a trauma patient?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without manipulating the cervical spine, protecting against spinal cord injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without manipulating the cervical spine, protecting against spinal cord injury.
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be optimized to avoid hypoxia or hyperoxia during post-cardiac arrest care.
How soon should defibrillation be performed in witnessed VF?
Incorrect. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
Correct. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
