Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the treatment for unstable atrial fibrillation?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to restore a normal rhythm in unstable atrial fibrillation.
The correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of atrial fibrillation is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization.
Correct. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization.
What is the preferred initial action for pulseless electrical activity?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine administration and addressing reversible causes.
What is the preferred method for confirming endotracheal tube placement?
Incorrect. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
Correct. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock.
Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Asystole is a shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Defibrillation should be delayed until after administering epinephrine in ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
Correct. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
What is the next step if VF persists after 2 defibrillation attempts?
Incorrect. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
Correct. If VF persists after defibrillation and epinephrine, amiodarone is administered to stabilize the rhythm.
How often should you reassess pulse during CPR?
Incorrect. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation.
Correct. Pulse checks are performed every 2 minutes during rhythm assessments to evaluate the effectiveness of resuscitation.
During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue.
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
How should you position a pregnant patient during resuscitation?
Incorrect. A left lateral tilt prevents aortocaval compression, improving venous return and cardiac output during resuscitation.
Correct. A left lateral tilt prevents aortocaval compression, improving venous return and cardiac output during resuscitation.
How often should a rhythm check occur during CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes during CPR, coinciding with compressor role switches.
The ideal pulse check duration during CPR is 10-15 seconds.
Incorrect. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks during CPR should not exceed 10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Defibrillation energy for adult cardiac arrest typically starts at 360 J.
Incorrect. Adult defibrillation with a biphasic defibrillator typically starts at 120-200 J, not 360 J, depending on the manufacturer's guidelines.
Correct. Adult defibrillation with a biphasic defibrillator typically starts at 120-200 J, not 360 J, depending on the manufacturer's guidelines.
How should you treat a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
Correct. Rhythm checks should be performed every 2 minutes, coinciding with rescuer role switches, to evaluate for shockable rhythms.
What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
What is the recommended action after ROSC is achieved?
Incorrect. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Correct. Oxygen levels should be monitored and optimized to maintain saturation within the target range of 92-96%.
Defibrillation should always be performed within 10 minutes of identifying VF.
Incorrect. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
Correct. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
What is the preferred treatment for unstable SVT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
What is the initial treatment for pulseless electrical activity (PEA)?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation.
Correct. CPR is the primary treatment for PEA, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes to restore circulation.
Defibrillation should be attempted within 30 seconds for a witnessed VF arrest.
Incorrect. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. Prompt defibrillation within 30 seconds of witnessed VF arrest improves the chance of restoring a perfusing rhythm.
Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating unstable SVT.
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for stable SVT, while synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable SVT.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for stable SVT, while synchronized cardioversion is used for unstable SVT.
What is the recommended compression fraction for effective CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions.
Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction of greater than 80% ensures the majority of resuscitation time is spent on compressions.
What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR for adults with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute minimizes interruptions in chest compressions and prevents hyperventilation.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute minimizes interruptions in chest compressions and prevents hyperventilation.
Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm in ACLS.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate CPR and epinephrine administration.
What is the correct ventilation rate for CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 5 mg.
Incorrect. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes.
Correct. The maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia is 3 mg, with doses given at 0.5 mg intervals every 3-5 minutes.
Lidocaine is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases.
Correct. Epinephrine is the first-line drug for VF, with amiodarone as the preferred antiarrhythmic for refractory cases.
PETCO2 monitoring is used to confirm effective ventilation and chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring helps assess the effectiveness of both ventilation and chest compressions in real-time during CPR.
The recommended chest compression depth for infants is at least 2 inches.
Incorrect. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm).
Correct. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm).
The recommended compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Synchronized cardioversion is used for pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
Correct. Pulseless VT is treated with defibrillation, while synchronized cardioversion is reserved for tachyarrhythmias with a pulse.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
The recommended oxygen saturation target during post-cardiac arrest care is 92-96%.
Incorrect. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage.
Correct. Maintaining oxygen saturation at 92-96% avoids hypoxia while preventing hyperoxia, which can cause further tissue damage.
The goal oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care is 100%.
Incorrect. The target oxygen saturation is 92-96% to avoid hyperoxia, which can contribute to oxidative injury.
Correct. The target oxygen saturation is 92-96% to avoid hyperoxia, which can contribute to oxidative injury.
What is the proper compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
Correct. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
What is the compression rate for CPR in adults?
Incorrect. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
Correct. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
What is the recommended maximum interval for chest compression interruptions?
Incorrect. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
Correct. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds preserves perfusion and improves resuscitation outcomes.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Hypokalemia is included in the "H's" of reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Correct. Hypokalemia can cause cardiac arrhythmias and is included in the "H's" of reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
What is the appropriate interval for delivering epinephrine during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure.
Correct. Epinephrine is repeated every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to enhance perfusion pressure.
How should you manage a patient with a suspected opioid overdose?
Incorrect. Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, restoring normal respiratory function.
Correct. Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, restoring normal respiratory function.
Synchronized cardioversion is indicated for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable VT with a pulse, preventing progression to VF.
Which drug is used for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is the first-line drug for treating narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
What rhythm is described as a chaotic, irregular deflection with no P or QRS waves?
Incorrect. Ventricular fibrillation presents as a disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation.
Correct. Ventricular fibrillation presents as a disorganized rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation.
What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 15:2.
Incorrect. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Correct. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions should continue uninterrupted while providing 10 breaths per minute.
What is the treatment for symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
Correct. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
What is the recommended first action for an unresponsive infant?
Incorrect. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment.
Correct. Calling for help ensures timely assistance and access to advanced resuscitation equipment.
How many cycles of CPR should be completed before reassessing the rhythm?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
How long should a pulse check take during CPR?
Incorrect. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion.
Correct. Avoid delays to minimize interruptions in chest compressions and maintain perfusion.
The compression fraction during CPR should be >60% for effective resuscitation.
Incorrect. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
Correct. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
What is the recommended treatment for unstable tachycardia?
Incorrect. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Correct. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion in children.
