Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
What is the maximum interval between defibrillation attempts during CPR?
Incorrect. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
Correct. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
What is the initial treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Correct. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 is recommended for two-rescuer pediatric CPR.
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg.
Correct. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg.
Which rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth atrial pattern?
Incorrect. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
Correct. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for infants with two rescuers?
Incorrect. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
Correct. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
What is the recommended treatment for unstable tachycardia?
Incorrect. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Correct. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
The recommended initial energy for pediatric defibrillation is 2 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg to safely deliver an effective shock without causing harm.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg to safely deliver an effective shock without causing harm.
Asystole requires immediate defibrillation.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm and is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
What is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute?
Incorrect. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
Correct. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
What is the recommended dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation.
Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation.
The recommended chest compression depth for infants is at least 2 inches.
Incorrect. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm).
Correct. Chest compressions for infants should be about 1/3 the depth of the chest, approximately 1.5 inches (4 cm).
How should you manage a patient with a suspected opioid overdose?
Incorrect. Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, restoring normal respiratory function.
Correct. Naloxone reverses opioid-induced respiratory depression, restoring normal respiratory function.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Ventricular fibrillation is considered a shockable rhythm.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore an organized cardiac rhythm.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
What is the primary goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygenation and ventilation should be closely monitored to prevent hypoxia and hyperoxia.
What is the recommended compression depth for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Hypovolemia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of PEA and can be treated with rapid fluid resuscitation.
What is the proper position for chest compressions on an adult?
Incorrect. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures.
Correct. Placing hands on the lower half of the sternum ensures effective chest compressions without damaging other structures.
What is the correct dose of dopamine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Dopamine is used to improve heart rate and contractility in bradycardia unresponsive to atropine.
Correct. Dopamine is used to improve heart rate and contractility in bradycardia unresponsive to atropine.
What is the appropriate dose of lidocaine for refractory VF?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
Correct. Lidocaine is an alternative antiarrhythmic for refractory VF, dosed at 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
The proper ventilation rate during advanced airway CPR is 6-8 breaths per minute.
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
What is the treatment for symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
Correct. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
How often should you switch chest compressors during CPR?
Incorrect. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Switching every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue and ensures high-quality chest compressions.
What is the appropriate action if PEA is identified?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
The correct dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT is 0.1 mg/kg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered at 0.1 mg/kg as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine is administered at 0.1 mg/kg as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
What is the appropriate treatment for severe bradycardia in pediatric patients unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given as a continuous infusion to maintain adequate heart rate and perfusion when atropine is ineffective.
Correct. Epinephrine is given as a continuous infusion to maintain adequate heart rate and perfusion when atropine is ineffective.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable atrial flutter.
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion restores organized cardiac activity in unstable atrial flutter.
What is the recommended action for a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine.
Hypoxia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
Correct. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
What is the recommended initial dose of epinephrine in anaphylaxis?
Incorrect. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Correct. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
How should an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury be positioned?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, reducing the risk of spinal injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, reducing the risk of spinal injury.
Which of the following is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation efforts.
What is the preferred alternative route if IV access is not available?
Incorrect. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Correct. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Naloxone should be administered to all cardiac arrest patients.
Incorrect. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest.
Correct. Naloxone is only used in cases of suspected opioid overdose and is not universally administered in cardiac arrest.
What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock.
Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
How often should team roles be rotated during CPR to avoid fatigue?
Incorrect. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions.
Correct. Rotating team roles every 2 minutes prevents fatigue, ensuring consistent delivery of high-quality chest compressions.
The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine is given every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest.
What is the compression rate for CPR in adults?
Incorrect. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
Correct. This rate ensures effective circulation without causing inadequate ventricular filling.
What should be done immediately after defibrillation?
Incorrect. CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
Correct. CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase the likelihood of ROSC.
What is the appropriate dose of magnesium for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
What is the drug of choice for wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic for stabilizing wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients.
Correct. Amiodarone is the preferred antiarrhythmic for stabilizing wide-complex tachycardia in stable patients.
What is the compression depth for infant CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
How should you position an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
The recommended defibrillation dose for pediatric VF arrest is 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
What is the appropriate action for PEA?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
Correct. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
Magnesium sulfate is the first-line drug for ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes but is not the first-line drug for VF, where epinephrine is prioritized.
Hypothermia is part of the "H's" for reversible cardiac arrest causes.
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be treated with warming measures.
What is the first drug administered during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest.
The initial treatment for unstable bradycardia is atropine.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block.
Correct. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block.
