Congratulations on completing FirstAidWeb’s ACLS Provider Certification Course! You’ve invested the time, effort, and commitment—now it’s time to secure your certification.
This exam isn’t meant to trick you. It’s designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
What is the proper treatment for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Defibrillation is the primary treatment for pulseless VT, aiming to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine at 1 mg IV every 3-5 minutes is used to enhance perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Defibrillation is the treatment of choice for pulseless electrical activity.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with CPR and addressing reversible causes such as hypoxia or hypovolemia.
How often should rhythm checks occur during ongoing CPR?
Incorrect. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
Correct. Rhythm checks are performed every 2 minutes to evaluate for shockable rhythms and assess the effectiveness of interventions.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Chest compressions should be paused for at least 15 seconds to deliver a shock.
Incorrect. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Correct. Chest compressions should be paused for less than 10 seconds to minimize interruptions during CPR when delivering a shock.
Asystole is a shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
During CPR with an advanced airway, chest compressions should continue uninterrupted.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, uninterrupted compressions improve blood flow while ventilation is delivered separately.
The target PETCO2 during effective chest compressions is >10 mmHg.
Incorrect. A PETCO2 level greater than 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating adequate blood flow.
Correct. A PETCO2 level greater than 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating adequate blood flow.
How should you treat VF if it persists after 3 shocks?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given to improve perfusion pressure and increase the chance of ROSC in persistent VF.
Correct. Epinephrine is given to improve perfusion pressure and increase the chance of ROSC in persistent VF.
The compression fraction during CPR should be >60% for effective resuscitation.
Incorrect. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
Correct. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
What is the shockable rhythm in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Requires immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
What is the appropriate action if PEA is identified?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR, epinephrine, and identifying reversible causes to restore organized electrical activity.
How many chest compressions should be delivered per minute in high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute optimizes perfusion without compromising cardiac filling.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute optimizes perfusion without compromising cardiac filling.
What is the treatment for symptomatic bradycardia unresponsive to atropine?
Incorrect. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
Correct. Provides external electrical stimuli to maintain adequate heart rate when atropine fails.
The recommended defibrillation dose for pediatric VF arrest is 4 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg and may increase to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if VF persists.
Defibrillation should always be performed within 10 minutes of identifying VF.
Incorrect. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
Correct. Defibrillation should be performed immediately after identifying VF, not delayed up to 10 minutes.
How many rescuers are required for high-quality CPR with advanced airway management?
Incorrect. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
Correct. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
What is the recommended dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine at 0.5 mg IV is the first-line treatment for symptomatic bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation.
What is the maximum pause duration between chest compressions?
Incorrect. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
Correct. Pausing compressions for more than 10 seconds interrupts perfusion and reduces the chances of ROSC.
Which rhythm requires defibrillation?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm that requires immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
What is the preferred alternative route if IV access is not available?
Incorrect. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Correct. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for infants with two rescuers?
Incorrect. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
Correct. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
What is the goal compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
What is the recommended treatment for unstable tachycardia?
Incorrect. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Correct. Prevents progression to cardiac arrest by restoring a normal rhythm.
Defibrillation energy for adult cardiac arrest typically starts at 360 J.
Incorrect. Adult defibrillation with a biphasic defibrillator typically starts at 120-200 J, not 360 J, depending on the manufacturer's guidelines.
Correct. Adult defibrillation with a biphasic defibrillator typically starts at 120-200 J, not 360 J, depending on the manufacturer's guidelines.
The initial dose of adenosine for narrow-complex SVT in adults is 6 mg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine 6 mg is given as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
What is the initial treatment for symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
Correct. Atropine is the first-line drug for symptomatic bradycardia, increasing heart rate by blocking vagal stimulation.
What is the first-line treatment for narrow-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
Correct. Vagal maneuvers stimulate the vagus nerve, often terminating reentrant arrhythmias causing narrow-complex tachycardia.
What is the appropriate depth for chest compressions in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing 2-2.4 inches ensures effective perfusion during adult CPR while minimizing the risk of injury.
What is the primary treatment for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
How should you position a patient for defibrillation?
Incorrect. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
Correct. A supine position ensures proper electrode placement and effective delivery of defibrillation shocks.
What is the first drug administered during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered to increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure during cardiac arrest.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Adenosine is used for the treatment of wide-complex tachycardia.
Incorrect. Adenosine is used for narrow-complex SVT, not wide-complex tachycardia, which is typically treated with amiodarone.
Correct. Adenosine is used for narrow-complex SVT, not wide-complex tachycardia, which is typically treated with amiodarone.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for pediatric patients?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
What is the proper compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
Correct. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Correct. Indicates effective chest compressions and blood circulation during resuscitation.
Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a common reversible cause of PEA and should be addressed with rapid fluid resuscitation.
What is the best method to monitor the quality of CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on chest compressions and the effectiveness of CPR.
What is the first intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is the most effective intervention for a witnessed cardiac arrest in VF.
What is the recommended energy dose for defibrillation in adults using a biphasic defibrillator?
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillators deliver effective shocks within the range of 120-200 J, restoring organized electrical activity.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Chest compressions should be paused to deliver ventilation during advanced airway CPR.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
Naloxone is used to reverse opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Incorrect. Naloxone blocks opioid receptors and is administered to reverse opioid overdose and restore adequate respiration.
Correct. Naloxone blocks opioid receptors and is administered to reverse opioid overdose and restore adequate respiration.
Which rhythm is non-shockable during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms.
How should you position an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
How many cycles of CPR should be completed before reassessing the rhythm?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm in ACLS.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate CPR and epinephrine administration.
How should you treat a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients with narrow-complex SVT.
Incorrect. Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients; synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice in such cases.
Correct. Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients; synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice in such cases.
What is the first drug given for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered after defibrillation to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during resuscitation.
How should chest compressions be performed on a patient with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
Correct. Continuous chest compressions are performed while ventilations are delivered every 6 seconds when an advanced airway is in place.
What is the proper dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
The recommended compression depth for child CPR is 1/3 the depth of the chest.
Incorrect. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs.
Correct. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs.
How should chest compressions be performed in pregnant patients?
Incorrect. Positioning the patient with a slight left tilt prevents aortocaval compression and improves venous return during CPR.
Correct. Positioning the patient with a slight left tilt prevents aortocaval compression and improves venous return during CPR.
What is the initial dose of epinephrine during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Administered every 3-5 minutes to restore circulation by increasing coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.
Correct. Administered every 3-5 minutes to restore circulation by increasing coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure.
What is the correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in unstable VT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion at 100 J is effective for restoring a stable rhythm in unstable ventricular tachycardia.
How should you confirm ET tube placement in a patient?
Incorrect. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
Correct. Waveform capnography ensures proper ET tube placement by monitoring exhaled CO? levels.
ROSC should be followed by immediate reassessment of the patient’s rhythm and ventilation.
Incorrect. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
Correct. Following ROSC, immediate reassessment ensures stability of the patient’s rhythm, oxygenation, and ventilation.
