Congratulations on completing FirstAidWebโs ACLS Provider Certification Course! Youโve invested the time, effort, and commitmentโnow itโs time to secure your certification.
This exam isnโt meant to trick you. Itโs designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
Asystole is a shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
What is the preferred treatment for unstable SVT?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is used to terminate unstable SVT by restoring normal electrical activity in the heart.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for adult bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
Correct. Atropine should not exceed a total dose of 3 mg when treating symptomatic bradycardia in adults.
What is the preferred alternative route if IV access is not available?
Incorrect. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
Correct. IO access provides a reliable alternative for rapid drug delivery during resuscitation when IV access cannot be obtained.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for adults in VF?
Incorrect. For biphasic defibrillators, 120-200 J is the recommended energy range for VF.
Correct. For biphasic defibrillators, 120-200 J is the recommended energy range for VF.
Epinephrine is administered every 5-10 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to maximize coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for pediatric patients?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
The recommended compression rate for CPR is 100-120 compressions per minute.
Incorrect. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
Correct. A rate of 100-120 compressions per minute ensures adequate circulation without risking incomplete recoil or excessive fatigue.
How should compressions be performed for an infant during CPR?
Incorrect. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
Correct. The two-thumb encircling technique provides high-quality compressions for infants during CPR.
What is the primary treatment for VF or pulseless VT?
Incorrect. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
Correct. These shockable rhythms require immediate defibrillation to restore a perfusing rhythm.
How often should chest compressors switch roles to avoid fatigue?
Incorrect. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained.
Correct. Switching compressors every 2 minutes reduces rescuer fatigue, ensuring high-quality chest compressions are maintained.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
What is the recommended action for a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and administration of epinephrine.
What is the best method to monitor effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring ensures effective ventilation and provides feedback on the quality of chest compressions during CPR.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring ensures effective ventilation and provides feedback on the quality of chest compressions during CPR.
What is the initial step in the BLS survey?
Incorrect. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Correct. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
How soon should defibrillation be performed in witnessed VF?
Incorrect. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
Correct. Rapid defibrillation within 1 minute of witnessed VF increases the likelihood of survival and ROSC.
Which drug can increase the heart rate in symptomatic bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia.
Correct. Atropine blocks vagal stimulation, increasing heart rate in cases of symptomatic bradycardia.
Which drug is used for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
The target temperature for targeted temperature management (TTM) is 32-36ยฐC.
Incorrect. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36ยฐC.
Correct. TTM is used to reduce neurological injury post-ROSC by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36ยฐC.
What is the preferred treatment for ventricular tachycardia with a pulse?
Incorrect. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
Correct. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for unstable ventricular tachycardia with a pulse.
What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio for pediatric CPR with one rescuer?
Incorrect. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
Correct. A single rescuer performs 30 compressions followed by 2 breaths to maximize perfusion and oxygenation in pediatric CPR.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
What drug is used for torsades de pointes during ACLS?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardial membrane and prevents arrhythmias.
How often should epinephrine be administered during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation.
Correct. Maintains vasoconstriction, improving blood flow to vital organs during resuscitation.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
What is the recommended initial dose of epinephrine in anaphylaxis?
Incorrect. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Correct. IM epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis, administered into the mid-thigh for rapid absorption.
Chest compressions should be started immediately for a patient in asystole.
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring immediate high-quality CPR and epinephrine to optimize perfusion.
The recommended compression depth for child CPR is 1/3 the depth of the chest.
Incorrect. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs.
Correct. Compressions at 1/3 the depth of the chest ensure adequate perfusion while minimizing injury to internal organs.
What is the correct ventilation rate for CPR with an advanced airway?
Incorrect. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
Correct. Providing 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation and ventilation without interfering with chest compressions.
Waveform capnography is the preferred method to confirm endotracheal tube placement.
Incorrect. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Correct. Waveform capnography provides real-time confirmation of ET tube placement and ensures proper ventilation.
Hypoxia is a common cause of pulseless electrical activity (PEA).
Incorrect. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
Correct. Hypoxia is one of the most common reversible causes of PEA and is addressed with high-quality oxygenation during resuscitation.
The recommended initial energy for pediatric defibrillation is 2 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg to safely deliver an effective shock without causing harm.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg to safely deliver an effective shock without causing harm.
High-quality CPR requires a compression fraction of >80%.
Incorrect. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
Correct. A compression fraction >80% ensures that the majority of CPR time is spent delivering chest compressions to improve outcomes.
The compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 15:2.
Incorrect. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Correct. The correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR indicate high-quality chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 levels greater than 10 mmHg suggest that chest compressions are generating adequate circulation.
Magnesium sulfate is used to treat torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes cardiac myocytes and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for infants with two rescuers?
Incorrect. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
Correct. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway is 30:2.
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures sufficient oxygenation and circulation in adults during CPR without an advanced airway.
How many cycles of CPR are recommended before rhythm reassessment?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be performed before reassessing the rhythm.
What is the recommended oxygen saturation goal during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to prevent hypoxia and avoid the harmful effects of hyperoxia.
The initial dose of amiodarone for refractory VF is 300 mg IV/IO.
Incorrect. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Amiodarone 300 mg IV/IO is administered after defibrillation and epinephrine to treat refractory VF or pulseless VT.
The correct dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT is 0.1 mg/kg IV.
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered at 0.1 mg/kg as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Correct. Adenosine is administered at 0.1 mg/kg as a rapid IV push for terminating narrow-complex SVT caused by reentrant pathways.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized electrical activity.
What should you do if defibrillation is unsuccessful?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
Correct. High-quality CPR should be resumed immediately after defibrillation to maintain perfusion and increase chances of ROSC.
The proper ventilation rate during advanced airway CPR is 6-8 breaths per minute.
Incorrect. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
Correct. Delivering 6-8 breaths per minute ensures adequate oxygenation without hyperventilation during CPR with an advanced airway.
What is the primary focus during the first 10 minutes of post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
Correct. Early stabilization of blood pressure and oxygenation is critical to preventing further cardiac arrest after ROSC.
What is the best indicator of effective ventilation during CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Correct. PETCO2 monitoring provides real-time feedback on ventilation and the effectiveness of chest compressions.
What is the target oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress.
Which rhythm requires transcutaneous pacing if symptomatic?
Incorrect. Symptomatic second-degree AV block type II can progress to complete heart block, requiring pacing.
Correct. Symptomatic second-degree AV block type II can progress to complete heart block, requiring pacing.
What is the appropriate dose of magnesium for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the cardiac membrane and is the drug of choice for treating torsades de pointes.
What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for adult CPR without an advanced airway?
Incorrect. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
Correct. A 30:2 ratio ensures adequate oxygenation and circulation when no advanced airway is present.
How should you treat a patient in asystole?
Incorrect. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
Correct. High-quality CPR is the primary treatment for asystole, along with epinephrine and addressing reversible causes.
How many rescuers are required for high-quality CPR with advanced airway management?
Incorrect. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
Correct. Two rescuers are needed to maintain high-quality CPR with an advanced airway: one for compressions and one for ventilation.
Hypovolemia is one of the reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest that can be treated with fluid resuscitation to restore circulation.
What is the maximum energy dose for defibrillation in adults?
Incorrect. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
Correct. Maximum energy for monophasic defibrillators; for biphasic, follow manufacturer recommendations.
What is the drug of choice for stable wide-complex tachycardia?
Incorrect. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
Correct. Amiodarone is used to stabilize wide-complex tachycardias in stable patients to prevent deterioration into cardiac arrest.
What is the dose of adenosine for pediatric SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a rapid IV push to terminate SVT in pediatric patients, followed by a saline flush.
Which condition is part of the H's and T's for reversible causes of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation.
Correct. Hypothermia is a potentially reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be addressed during resuscitation.
Which of the following is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
Correct. Hypothermia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and must be corrected to restore spontaneous circulation.
Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes as it stabilizes the myocardium.
Epinephrine is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest.
Correct. Epinephrine is given every 3-5 minutes to enhance coronary and cerebral perfusion during cardiac arrest.
What is the recommended compression depth for pediatric CPR?
Incorrect. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
Correct. Compressing to one-third the depth of the chest ensures adequate perfusion while minimizing the risk of injury.
What is the compression fraction goal during CPR?
Incorrect. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation.
Correct. Maintaining a compression fraction above 80% ensures adequate blood flow during resuscitation.
