Congratulations on completing FirstAidWebโs ACLS Provider Certification Course! Youโve invested the time, effort, and commitmentโnow itโs time to secure your certification.
This exam isnโt meant to trick you. Itโs designed to confirm your understanding of the material. Take a breath, get focused, and review the key details below before you begin.
How often should rescuers switch roles during CPR?
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
Correct. Rescuers should switch every 2 minutes to prevent fatigue and ensure high-quality compressions are maintained.
What is the preferred method for confirming endotracheal tube placement?
Incorrect. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
Correct. The most reliable method to confirm and monitor placement by measuring exhaled CO?.
ROSC is defined as the return of a detectable pulse and effective blood circulation.
Incorrect. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
Correct. ROSC signifies the resumption of spontaneous cardiac activity with effective circulation, improving patient survival.
Defibrillation should be delayed until after administering epinephrine in ventricular fibrillation.
Incorrect. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
Correct. Defibrillation is the priority for VF and should not be delayed for drug administration, as it is the definitive treatment.
What is the initial dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate is administered to stabilize the myocardium and treat torsades de pointes effectively.
Chest compressions should be paused to deliver ventilation during advanced airway CPR.
Incorrect. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
Correct. With an advanced airway in place, compressions continue uninterrupted while breaths are delivered at 6-8 breaths per minute.
What is the target oxygen saturation during post-cardiac arrest care?
Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress.
Correct. Oxygen saturation should be maintained at 92-96% to avoid hypoxia and reduce the risk of hyperoxia and oxidative stress.
What is the maximum interval between defibrillation attempts during CPR?
Incorrect. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
Correct. Defibrillation attempts should be separated by 2-minute CPR cycles to ensure effective perfusion and rhythm evaluation.
What is the goal compression fraction for high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
Correct. A compression fraction above 80% ensures that most of the resuscitation time is spent performing chest compressions.
What is the correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is dosed at 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What is the correct defibrillation dose for pediatric patients?
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation starts at 2 J/kg for the initial shock, increasing as needed based on the patient's response.
How should you position an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust technique opens the airway while minimizing cervical spine movement, reducing the risk of further injury.
Magnesium sulfate is the treatment of choice for torsades de pointes.
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the first-line treatment for torsades de pointes.
How many seconds should a pulse check take during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulse checks should be limited to 5-10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
Correct. Pulse checks should be limited to 5-10 seconds to minimize interruptions in chest compressions.
What is the recommended initial dose of adenosine for adults?
Incorrect. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
Correct. Adenosine is administered as a 6 mg rapid IV push, followed by a saline flush, to terminate reentrant arrhythmias.
What is the dose of epinephrine for adult cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine is given at a dose of 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes during adult cardiac arrest to improve perfusion.
Which rhythm is non-shockable during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms.
Correct. PEA is treated with CPR and epinephrine, as defibrillation is ineffective for non-shockable rhythms.
Which rhythm is shockable in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Correct. Pulseless VT is a shockable rhythm requiring immediate defibrillation to restore organized cardiac activity.
Which rhythm is characterized by a sawtooth atrial pattern?
Incorrect. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
Correct. Atrial flutter presents as a sawtooth pattern on the ECG and requires rate control or cardioversion depending on stability.
Incorrect. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine at 0.01 mg/kg is administered every 3-5 minutes during pediatric cardiac arrest to improve coronary perfusion.
During CPR, rescuers should rotate roles every 5 minutes to reduce fatigue.
Incorrect. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
Correct. Rescuers should switch roles every 2 minutes to maintain high-quality chest compressions and prevent fatigue.
The correct defibrillation dose for adults using a biphasic defibrillator is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
Correct. Biphasic defibrillation begins at 120-200 J to terminate shockable rhythms like VF and pulseless VT effectively.
What is the maximum dose of lidocaine in ACLS?
Incorrect. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Lidocaine is an antiarrhythmic drug used as an alternative to amiodarone for VF or pulseless VT.
Asystole is a shockable rhythm during cardiac arrest.
Incorrect. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
Correct. Asystole is not a shockable rhythm; it is treated with high-quality CPR and epinephrine.
PETCO2 monitoring can help assess the effectiveness of chest compressions.
Incorrect. PETCO2 >10 mmHg during CPR indicates effective chest compressions generating sufficient circulation.
Correct. PETCO2 >10 mmHg during CPR indicates effective chest compressions generating sufficient circulation.
What is the proper dose of magnesium sulfate for torsades de pointes?
Incorrect. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
Correct. Magnesium sulfate stabilizes the myocardium and is the drug of choice for torsades de pointes.
What is the maximum time allowed for interruption of chest compressions?
Incorrect. Interruptions in chest compressions should not exceed 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs.
Correct. Interruptions in chest compressions should not exceed 10 seconds to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs.
What is the first action when you see an unresponsive patient?
Incorrect. Shouting for help ensures additional resources and a defibrillator are quickly available.
Correct. Shouting for help ensures additional resources and a defibrillator are quickly available.
PETCO2 levels >10 mmHg during CPR suggest effective chest compressions.
Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating sufficient circulation during CPR.
Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates that chest compressions are generating sufficient circulation during CPR.
The initial treatment for unstable bradycardia is atropine.
Incorrect. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block.
Correct. Atropine is given at 0.5 mg IV every 3-5 minutes for unstable bradycardia caused by vagal stimulation or primary AV block.
What is the recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for infants with two rescuers?
Incorrect. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
Correct. The 15:2 ratio improves oxygenation and circulation during high-quality infant CPR performed by two rescuers.
How many cycles of CPR should be completed before reassessing the rhythm?
Incorrect. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
Correct. Two minutes of CPR (about 5 cycles of 30 compressions and 2 breaths) should be completed before checking the rhythm.
Which rhythm is not shockable?
Incorrect. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
Correct. Asystole is a non-shockable rhythm requiring high-quality CPR and epinephrine administration.
What is the appropriate action for a patient with PEA?
Incorrect. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is treated with epinephrine and high-quality CPR to address underlying reversible causes.
What is the initial dose of amiodarone for pulseless ventricular tachycardia?
Incorrect. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
Correct. Stabilizes the myocardium and suppresses arrhythmias during refractory VF or pulseless VT.
What is the recommended rate of chest compressions per minute?
Incorrect. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
Correct. Optimal for maintaining adequate circulation without risking poor perfusion due to excessive speed.
What is the recommended action for a witnessed cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.
Correct. Immediate defibrillation is critical for shockable rhythms like ventricular fibrillation and pulseless VT.
What is the maximum dose of atropine for bradycardia?
Incorrect. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
Correct. Atropine doses should not exceed 3 mg during bradycardia management to avoid adverse effects.
What is the recommended energy setting for synchronized cardioversion in narrow, irregular tachycardia?
Incorrect. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
Correct. For unstable narrow, irregular tachycardias, synchronized cardioversion at 120-200 J is recommended.
The compression fraction during CPR should be >60% for effective resuscitation.
Incorrect. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
Correct. The compression fraction should be greater than 80% to maximize perfusion during CPR.
The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 1 mg/kg IV/IO.
Incorrect. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg.
Correct. The correct dose of epinephrine for pediatric cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg IV/IO, not 1 mg/kg.
What is the appropriate treatment for VF in cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and defibrillation is the most effective intervention to restore a normal rhythm.
What is the initial step in the BLS survey?
Incorrect. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
Correct. Assessing responsiveness is the first step in determining the need for CPR or other interventions in the BLS survey.
A compression-to-ventilation ratio of 15:2 is recommended for two-rescuer pediatric CPR.
Incorrect. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR.
Correct. A 15:2 ratio ensures efficient oxygenation and circulation in pediatric patients during two-rescuer CPR.
What is the most common reversible cause of cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
Correct. Hypovolemia is a reversible cause of cardiac arrest and should be corrected with fluid resuscitation.
What is the first step in managing a patient with asystole?
Incorrect. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
Correct. Immediate CPR is required as asystole is a non-shockable rhythm.
What is the proper compression depth for high-quality CPR in adults?
Incorrect. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
Correct. Compressing the chest 2-2.4 inches ensures adequate blood flow while minimizing injury risks.
What is the primary treatment for VF during cardiac arrest?
Incorrect. VF is a shockable rhythm, and immediate defibrillation is the most effective treatment.
Correct. VF is a shockable rhythm, and immediate defibrillation is the most effective treatment.
What is the target PETCO2 during high-quality CPR?
Incorrect. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
Correct. PETCO2 readings above 10 mmHg during CPR indicate adequate chest compressions and cardiac output.
The correct energy setting for synchronized cardioversion of atrial fibrillation is 120-200 J.
Incorrect. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization.
Correct. Atrial fibrillation is cardioverted starting at 120-200 J in synchronized mode to avoid delivering the shock during ventricular repolarization.
Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients with narrow-complex SVT.
Incorrect. Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients; synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice in such cases.
Correct. Adenosine is contraindicated in unstable patients; synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice in such cases.
What is the recommended interval for ventilation during advanced airway CPR?
Incorrect. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
Correct. Ventilation with an advanced airway should be provided at a rate of 1 breath every 6 seconds, or 10 breaths per minute.
What is the most reliable indicator of effective CPR?
Incorrect. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR.
Correct. A PETCO2 reading above 10 mmHg indicates adequate chest compressions and cardiac output during CPR.
The recommended compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 15:2.
Incorrect. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 30:2, ensuring sufficient oxygenation and circulation.
Correct. The compression-to-ventilation ratio for single-rescuer infant CPR is 30:2, ensuring sufficient oxygenation and circulation.
The initial dose of epinephrine for cardiac arrest is 1 mg IV.
Incorrect. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
Correct. Epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO is administered every 3-5 minutes during cardiac arrest to improve coronary and cerebral perfusion.
What is the appropriate action for PEA?
Incorrect. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
Correct. CPR is the primary intervention for PEA, followed by epinephrine and identification of reversible causes.
The correct defibrillation dose for pediatric cardiac arrest starts at 2 J/kg.
Incorrect. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg and increases to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Correct. Pediatric defibrillation begins at 2 J/kg and increases to 4 J/kg for subsequent shocks if needed.
Pulseless electrical activity (PEA) is treated with defibrillation.
Incorrect. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
Correct. PEA is not a shockable rhythm; it is managed with high-quality CPR and addressing the underlying reversible causes.
What is the primary intervention for ROSC?
Incorrect. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia.
Correct. Post-ROSC care focuses on stabilizing ventilation and oxygenation to prevent hypoxia or hyperoxia.
What is the target core temperature during targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36ยฐC.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury after ROSC by maintaining a target temperature between 32-36ยฐC.
What is the purpose of targeted temperature management (TTM)?
Incorrect. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Correct. TTM prevents further neurological injury by maintaining a controlled core temperature after ROSC.
Targeted temperature management (TTM) aims to reduce the risk of brain injury post-ROSC.
Incorrect. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36ยฐC after the return of spontaneous circulation.
Correct. TTM helps reduce neurological injury by maintaining a core temperature of 32-36ยฐC after the return of spontaneous circulation.
What is the recommended action for a choking infant who becomes unresponsive?
Incorrect. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
Correct. Chest compressions are performed to dislodge the obstruction and restore effective ventilation in an unresponsive infant.
What is the first-line drug for narrow-complex SVT?
Incorrect. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
Correct. Adenosine is used to terminate reentrant arrhythmias in narrow-complex SVT by slowing conduction through the AV node.
How should an unconscious patient with a suspected spinal injury be positioned?
Incorrect. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, reducing the risk of spinal injury.
Correct. The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway without moving the cervical spine, reducing the risk of spinal injury.
